If Sweden violated the absolute ban on torture by allowing the US to transfer an asylum seeker to Egypt after receiving assurances that he would not be tortured. Does that mean
A) that the US violated the absolute ban of torture by TRANSFERING said asylum seeker to Egypt?
or
B) that the UK government’s stated policy to deport failed asylum seekers to states with dubious human rights records (does this include the US?) after receiving assurances from the governments of these states that the deportees will not be tortured is also a violation of the absolute ban?
A Human Rights Watch Q&A document about "diplomatic assurances" about torture may be found here.
A) that the US violated the absolute ban of torture by TRANSFERING said asylum seeker to Egypt?
or
B) that the UK government’s stated policy to deport failed asylum seekers to states with dubious human rights records (does this include the US?) after receiving assurances from the governments of these states that the deportees will not be tortured is also a violation of the absolute ban?
A Human Rights Watch Q&A document about "diplomatic assurances" about torture may be found here.
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